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Leon Spence

Populism: where history and politics meet?

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I've just finished reading Jan-Werner Muller's short and accessible assessment of the rise of populism: What is Populism?

As a student of history and politics I was interested by Muller's assertion that "As a consequence (of World War 2), the whole direction of political development in postwar Europe has been towards fragmenting political power (to prevent the possibility of a return of totalitarianism)."

Muller argues that, whether intentionally or subliminally, the governmental structures of Europe were so affected by the impact of the war there was a clear move to disperse power that such events could never recur.

It was, of course, a highly understandable move but the question remains whether in doing so there was an inevitable dissolution of democracy? If electorates could no longer choose the direction their government takes because of added tiers, supranational bodies and treaties is there an inevitability that 'the people' believe they have less say in the future of their country?

Is it indeed inevitable that the rise of populism is an inevitable response to the precautions that a shellshocked Europe put in place to prevent a concentration of power?

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